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If a VRRP Master router is rebooted, what is the default behavior once it comes back online?
A. An election occurs to determine which router will have the Master role
B. Original VRRP Master will take back control of the Master role
C. Original VRRP Backup will retain the Master role
D. VRRP Master role is determined by the router with the lowest MAC address
Answer: B

What is the recommended maximum number of routers, per area, when using OSPF?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 255
Answer: A

When configuring a Dell EMC N-Series switch for voice traffic, which settings are needed?
A. Enable voice VLAN
Set each-interface to LLDP share all VoIP related parameters
Set switchport mode to general
B. Create a VLAN for voice
Set each interface to ISDP share all VoIP related parameters
Set switchport mode to general
C. Enable voice VLAN
Set each interface to LLDP share all VoIP related parameters
Set switchport mode to hybrid
D. Enable voice VLAN
Set each interface to ISDP share all VoIP related parameters
Set switchport mode to general
Answer: A

What is the interaction between CDP, ISDP, and LLDP when communicating configuration information from a Dell EMC Campus networking switch to a Cisco VoIP phone?
A. N-Series switches can be configured to use LLDP or CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices
B. N-Series switches can be configured to use only CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices
C. N-Series switches can be configured to use ISDP or CDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices
D. N-Series switches can be configured to use ISDP or LLDP to communicate configuration information with Cisco devices
Answer: D

A user’s workstation has an IP phone connected to a Dell EMC N-Series switch.
What is the recommended number of VLANs that should be configured on the switch port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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A critical stakeholder has requested additional status updated beyond the schedule.
Which of the following factors MOST likely needs to be accounted for when communication with this stakeholder?
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Frequency
D. Cultural differences
Answer: C

A project sponsor and Chief Information Officer (CIO) disagree about how to release the final deliverables to the market. The sponsor wants to do a massive product release, while the CIO wants to be extremely cautious and add more time for testing and defect resolution. The project manager works with both parties and determines the best solution is to roll the product out in a pilot release to see how it tests, and then use customer feedback to determine next steps.
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques is the project manager using?
A. Forcing
B. Negotiating
C. Compromising
D. Avoiding
Answer: B

A project manager is justifying a required change with the associated impact on the project.
Which of the following is the NEXT step?
A. Implementation
B. Approval
C. Validation
D. Auditing
Answer: B

A team lead informs the project manager that the datacenter will not be accessible when the project needs to be completed. The team lead also indicates that the team member who is assigned to complete the datacenter project is out on medical leave.
Which of the following should a project manager update to document this information?
A. A list of realized risks
B. A list of decomposed activities
C. A sequenced list of project tasks
D. A document describing agreed-upon communication methods
Answer: A

The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation? (Choose two.)
A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.
B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.
C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.
D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.
E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.
Answer: AE

A project requires daily status updates.
Which of the following is the MOST effective method for providing these updates?
A. Backlog
B. Standup
C. Kickoff
D. Retrospective
Answer: B

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You are provisioning a LUN for a new host. In this scenario, which three objects must exist?(Choose three.)
A. igroup
B. volume
C. LUN
D. export policy
E. interface group
Answer: ABC

What are two capabilities of Vserver setup?(Choose two)
A. It configures an existing Vserver
B. It licenses Vserver functionality
C. it creates a new Vserver that can host FCP LUNs.
D. It creates a new cluster Vservers
E. It joins an exisiting Vserver to the cluster.
Answer: AD

What are three advantages of configuring network subnets?(Choose three.)
A. The default gateway is automatically added to the SVM.
B. The subnet mask is automatically set on the NAS LIF.
C. The DNS zone is automatically set on the NAS LIF.
D. The IP address is automatically set on the NAS LIF.
E. The flow control is automatically set on the port.
Answer: ABD

You want to create a FlexGroup volume that contains four aggregates with eight constituents each. In this scenario, what is the value of the aggregate list multiplier?
A. 2
B. 32
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

What is the maximum number of node a SAN cluster in Data ONTAP 9 can have?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 1
D. 6
E. 2
F. 24
G. 8
Answer: G

When you deduplicate a thick-provisioned volume, in which area will you see space savings when using a df command?
A. aggregate
B. volume
C. node
D. cluster
Answer: B

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Which statements about DNS filter profiles are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can inspect HTTP traffic.
B. They can redirect blocked requests to a specific portal.
C. They can block DNS requests to known botnet command and control servers.
D. They must be applied in firewall policies with SSL inspection enabled.
Answer: B C

Which of the following statements are true when using WPAD with the DHCP discovery method? (Choose two.)
A. If the DHCP method fails, browsers will try the DNS method.
B. The browser needs to be preconfigured with the DHCP server’s IP address.
C. The browser sends a DHCPONFORM request to the DHCP server.
D. The DHCP server provides the PAC file for download.
Answer: A C

Why does FortiGate keep TCP sessions in the session table for some seconds even after both sides (client and server) have terminated the session?
A. To remove the NAT operation.
B. To generate logs
C. To finish any inspection operations.
D. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets.
Answer: D

Which statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. In proxy-based inspection mode antivirus buffers the whole file for scarring before sending it to the client.
B. In flow-based inspection mode, you can use the CLI to configure antivirus profiles to use protocol option profiles.
C. In proxy-based inspection mode, if a virus is detected, a replacement message may not be displayed immediately.
D. In quick scan mode, you can configure antivirus profiles to use any of the available signature data bases.
Answer: A B

NGFW mode allows policy-based configuration for most inspection rules.
Which security profile’s configuration does not change when you enable policy-based inspection?
A. Web filtering
B. Antivirus
C. Web proxy
D. Application control
Answer: B

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A government has instituted new anti-money laundering laws which require all financial institutions to obtain certain information from its customers.
Which step should an institution located in this jurisdiction take to ensure compliance?
A. Change procedures to require that the necessary information is obtained
B. Change procedures and systems as necessary and provide employee training
C. Send a notice to customers asking them to provide the necessary information
D. Change systems to ensure the required information is automatically obtained from all customers
Answer: B

Which two individuals are ordinarily beneficial owners of a private banking account according to the Wolfsberg Anti-Money Laundering Principles for Private Banking? (Choose two.)
A. Those who are authorized signers on the account
B. Those who have legal title to a controlling share interest in the customer
C. Those who generally have ultimate control through ownership or other means over the funds in the account
D. Those who are the ultimate source of funds for the account and whose source of wealth should be subject to due diligence
Answer: CD

What is the appropriate compliance control for identifying politically exposed persons (PEPs) according to the Basel Committee’s paper on Customer Due Diligence for Banks?
A. Determining that a local figure is a PEP
B. Reviewing when a relationship is established
C. Reviewing relationships at account opening and on a periodic basis
D. Requiring that the customer discloses that they are a PEP or an associate of a PEP
Answer: C

An employee hears a colleague on the telephone with a customer giving advice on how to ensure that a suspicious transaction report will not be filed as a result of a future transaction.
What action should the employee take?
A. Report the conversation to the local police
B. Report the conversation to the compliance officer
C. Tell the colleague that it is against policy to give such advice
D. Ignore the situation because the colleague is the relationship manager for that customer
Answer: B

A branch manager for a small community bank has a new customer who deposits four EUR 50,000 checks into one account. Shortly thereafter, the customer goes to another branch and asks to transfer all but EUR 1,500 to three accounts in different foreign jurisdictions.
Which suspicious activity should be the focus of the suspicious transaction report?
A. The customer opened the account with four large checks
B. The customer goes to a different branch to make this transaction
C. The customer transfers almost all of the funds out of the account
D. The customer asks to transfer funds to accounts in three different foreign jurisdictions
Answer: D

A customer opens a corporate account with a broker-dealer on behalf of several beneficial owners, with a stated long-term investment goal. The customer deposits $25.5 million into the account and three days later transfers $5 million to an overseas bank. Shortly thereafter, the customer begins making numerous purchases of pesos. The compliance officer receives a query regarding the movement of funds. Within a month of account opening, the customer depletes the account.
Which two red flags should prompt the firm’s compliance officer to take action? (Choose two.)
A. The new account deposit is $25.5 million
B. A corporate account is opened on behalf of several beneficial owners
C. The compliance officer receives the query regarding the movement of funds
D. The customer’s stated investment goal is not reflective of account activity
Answer: CD

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